Weekly Current Affairs Prelims (27th December, 2018 to 2nd January, 2019)

Gaganyaan Programme

Weekly Current Affairs Prelims (27th December, 2018 to 2nd January, 2019)

 

Topic: POCSO Act made stringent, death penalty for aggravated sexual assault on children

 

Topic in Syllabus: Social Issues

POCSO Act

Why in news?

The Union Cabinet recently approved amendments to strengthen the POCSO Act and included the death penalty for aggravated sexual assault on children, besides providing stringent punishments for other crimes against those below 18 years of age.

 

More about on news:

  • Union minister Ravi Shankar Prasad said children should be protected from sexual offences and the Cabinet has approved amendments to various sections of The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act to achieve this.
  • An official statement said sections 4, 5 and 6 of the Act are proposed to be amended to provide the option of stringent punishment, including the death penalty, for committing aggravated penetrative sexual assault on a child.
  • It said these amendments are aimed at discouraging the trend of child sexual abuse by acting as a deterrent.
  • The amendments are also proposed to the section 9 of the Act to protect children from sexual offences in times of natural calamities and disasters and in cases where children are administered, in any way, any hormone or any chemical substance, to attain early sexual maturity for the purpose of penetrative sexual assault, it said.

 

Salient Features:

  • The POCSO Act, 2012 was enacted to Protect the Children from Offences of Sexual Assault, Sexual harassment and pornography with due regard for safeguarding the interest and well-being of children.
  • The Act defines a child as any person below eighteen years of age, and regards the best interests and welfare of the child as matter of paramount importance at every stage, to ensure the healthy physical, emotional, intellectual and social development of the child. The act is gender neutral.
  • The amendment in Section-4, Section-5, Section-6, Section-9, Section-14, Section-15 and Section-42 of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, is made to address the aspects of child sexual abuse in appropriate manner.
  • The modification is made to address the need for stringent measures required to deter the rising trend of child sex abuse in the country.
  • To discourage the trend of child sexual abuse by acting as a deterrent Section-4, Section-5 and Section-6 are proposed to be amended to provide option of stringent punishment, including death penalty, for committing aggravated penetrative sexual assault crime on a child to protect the children from sexual abuse.
  • The amendments are also proposed in section-9 to protect children from sexual offences in times of natural calamities and disasters and in cases where children are administered, in any way, any hormone or any chemical substance, to attains early sexual maturity for the purpose of penetrative sexual assault.
  • Section-14 and Section-15 of the POCSO Act, 2012 are also proposed to be amended to address the menace of the child pornography.
  • It is proposed to levy fine for not destroying/or deleting/ or reporting the pornographic material involving a child.
  • The person can be further penalized with jail term or fine or both for transmitting/propagating/administrating such material in any manner except for the purpose of reporting as may be prescribed and for use as evidence in court. Penal provisions have been made more stringent for storing/possessing any pornographic material in any form involving a child for commercial purpose.

 

POCSO Act:

  • The POCSO Act, 2012 was enacted to Protect the Children from Offences of Sexual Assault, Sexual harassment and pornography with due regard for safeguarding the interest and well-being of children.
  • The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO), Act 2012, came into force on 14.11.2012.
  • It is a gender neutral Act which has been enacted to strengthen the legal provisions for the protection of children from sexual abuse and exploitation.
  • The POCSO Act, 2012 defines a child as any person below the age of 18 years and provides protection to all children under the age of 18 years from the offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment and pornography.

 

Benefits:

  • The amendment is expected to discourage the trend of child sexual abuse by acting as a deterrent due to strong penal provisions incorporated in the Act.
  • It may protect the interest of vulnerable children in times of distress and ensures their safety and dignity.
  • The amendment aims to establish clarity regarding the aspects of child abuse and punishment thereof.

 

Sample Question:

Consider the following statements with respect to POCSO Act, 2012

  1. The Act defines a child as any person below fourteen years of age.
  2. It is a gender neutral Act which has been enacted to strengthen the legal provisions for the protection of children from sexual abuse and exploitation.
  3. It may protect the interest of vulnerable children in times of distress and ensures their safety and dignity.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a). 1 and 3 only

b). 1 and 2 only

c). 2 and 3 only

d). All of the above

Answer: c) 2 and 3 only

 


 

Topic: Japan announces IWC withdrawal, will resume commercial whaling

 

Topic in Syllabus: International Affairs

Japan announces IWC withdrawal

Why in news?

Japan said recently it is withdrawing from the International Whaling Commission and will resume commercial whaling next year, in a move expected to spark international criticism.

 

More about on news:

  • The announcement had been widely expected and comes after Japan failed in a bid earlier this year to convince the IWC to allow it to resume commercial whaling.
  • Japan had decided to withdraw from the International Whaling Commission in order to resume commercial whaling in July next year.
  • Tokyo has repeatedly threatened to pull out of the body, and has been regularly criticised for catching hundreds of whales a year for “scientific research” despite being a signatory to a moratorium on hunting the animals
  • Japan would officially inform the IWC of its decision by the end of the year, which will mean the withdrawal comes into effect by June 30.
  • Leaving the IWC means Japanese whalers will be able to resume hunting in Japanese coastal waters of minke and other whales currently protected by the IWC.
  • But Japan will not be able to continue the so-called scientific research hunts in the Antarctic that it has been exceptionally allowed as an IWC member under the Antarctic Treaty.
  • The withdrawal means Japan joins Iceland and Norway in openly defying the IWC’s ban on commercial whale hunting.

 

Background:

  • Japan has hunted whales for centuries, and the meat was a key source of protein in the immediate post-World War II years when the country was desperately poor.
  • But consumption has declined significantly in recent decades, with much of the population saying they rarely or never eat whale meat.
  • Whale hunting has become a rare thorny subject in Japan’s otherwise largely amiable foreign policy, with international opposition only serving to make conservatives dig in deeper in support of the tradition.
  • Many members of Prime Minister Shinzo Abe’s conservative Liberal Democratic Party are supporters of whaling, and he himself comes from a constituency where whale hunting remains popular.
  • Tokyo argues that whaling is an important part of Japan’s traditions, and Suga said the withdrawal would allow fishermen to “pass our country’s rich whaling culture onto the next generation.”
  • In September, Tokyo sought to convince the IWC to allow it to resume commercial whaling, arguing that that stocks of certain species were now sufficient to support renewed hunting
  • But the bid failed, with strong opposition from anti-whaling nations led by Australia, the European Union and the United States.

 

International Whaling Commission:

  • The International Whaling Commission (IWC) is an international body set up by the terms of the International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling(ICRW).
  • The International Whaling Commission was established in December 1946 to conserve and manage the world’s whale and cetacean population and thus make possible the orderly development of the whaling industry”.
  • In 1982 the IWC adopted a moratorium on commercial whaling. Currently, Japan, Russia and a number of other nations oppose this moratorium.
  • The IWC allows non-zero whaling quotas for aboriginal subsistence and also member nations may issue ‘Scientific Permits’ to their citizens. Japan has issued such permits since 1986.
  • Iceland and Norway object to the moratorium and continue to hunt whales commercially without relying on science as an excuse.
  • The main duty of the IWC is to keep under review and revise as necessary the measures laid down in the Schedule to the Convention, which governs the conduct of whaling throughout the world.
  • In September 2018, In September 2018, the majority of member nations at the IWC annual symposium in Brazil approved a non-binding resolution stating that commercial whaling was no longer a valid economic activity, or needed for scientific research.
  • The IWC members agreed to safeguard the marine mammals in perpetuity and allow the recovery of all whale populations to pre-industrial whaling levels.

 

Sample Question:

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to International Whaling Commission (IWC)

  1. It is international body set up under Antarctic Treaty.
  2. It aims to provide for the proper conservation of whale stocks.
  3. India is not a member of IWC.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

a). 1 and 2 only

b). 2 only

c). 1 and 3 only

d). All of the above

Answer: b) 2 only

 


 

Topic: Cabinet approves bill for setting up of National Commission for Indian System of Medicine

 

Topic in Syllabus: Indian Governance

NCIM bill

Why in news?

The Union Cabinet on recently approved the draft National Commission for Indian Systems of Medicine (NCIM) Bill, 2018, which seeks to replace the existing regulator, the Central Council for Indian Medicine (CCIM), with a new body to ensure transparency and accountability, an official statement said.

 

More about on news:

  • This is on the lines of National Medical Commission Bill that is meant to regulate allopathy medicine system.
  • The NCIM will promote availability of affordable healthcare services in all parts of the country.
  • The Cabinet has also approved the draft National Commission for Homoeopathy Bill, 2018, aimed at replacing the Central Council for Homoeopathy, which is the current regulatory body for homoeopathy.
  • The proposed regulatory structure will enable transparency and accountability for protecting the interests of the general public, it said.
  • The NCIM will promote availability of affordable healthcare services in all.

 

National Commission for Indian System of Medicine Bill, 2018

Salient features:

  • The draft bill provides for the constitution of a National Commission with four autonomous boards entrusted with conducting overall education of Ayurveda, under Board of Ayurveda and Unani, Siddha &Sowarigpa under Board of Unaini, Siddha and Sowarigpa.
  • There are two common Boards namely, Board of assessment and rating to assess and grant permission to educational institutions of Indian systems of Medicine and Board of ethics and registration of practitioners of Indian systems of medicine to maintain National Register and ethical issues relating to practice under the National Commission for Indian Medicine.
  • It also proposes a common entrance exam and an exit exam, which all graduates will have to clear to get practicing licenses.
  • Further, a teacher’s eligibility test has been proposed in the Bill to assess the standard of teachers before appointment and promotions.
  • The draft bill is aimed at bringing reforms in the medical education of Indian medicine sector in lines with the National Medical Commission proposed for setting up for Allopathy system of medicine.

 

Indian Systems of Medicine:

  • India has recognized six systems of medicine viz. Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani and Yoga, Naturopathy and Homoeopathy.
  • The Ministry of Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy (AYUSH) was formed on 9th November 2014 to ensure the optimal development and propagation of AYUSH systems of healthcare.
  • Earlier it was known as the Department of Indian System of Medicine and Homeopathy (ISM&H) which was created in March 1995 and renamed as Department of Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy (AYUSH) in November 2003, with focused attention for development of Education and Research in Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy.

 

Sample Question:

Consider the following statements with respect to National Commission for Indian System of Medicine Bill, 2018

  1. The proposed regulatory structure will enable transparency and accountability for protecting the interest of the general public.
  2. The NCIM will promote availability of affordable healthcare services in selected and most venerable parts of the country.
  3. It proposes a common entrance exam and an exit exam, which all graduates will have to clear to get practicing licenses.

Choose the correct answer from the above

a). 1 only

b). 1 and 2 only

c). 1 and 3 only

d). All of the above

Answer: c) 1 and 3 only

 


 

Topic: Cabinet approves Indian Human Spaceflight Initiative: Gaganyaan Programme

 

Topic in Syllabus: Science & Technology

Gaganyaan Programme

Why in news?

The Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has approved the Gaganyaan Programme with demonstration of Indian Human Spaceflight capability to low earth orbit for a mission duration ranging from one orbital period to a maximum of seven days.

 

Background:

  • ISRO has completed the development of launch vehicle GSLV Mk-lll which has the necessary payload capability to launch a 3-member crew module in low earth orbit.
  • ISRO has also tested the crew escape system which is an essential technology for human space flight.
  • The aerodynamic characterization of crew module has been completed as part of GSLV Mk-lll X mission flight.
  • Elements of life support system and Space suit also have been realized and tested.
  • In addition, the orbital & re-entry mission and recovery operations have been flight demonstrated in Space Capsule Re-entry experiment (SRE) mission.
  • ISRO has developed and demonstrated most of the baseline technologies essential for undertaking human spaceflight mission.
  • Globally also, there is a renewed interest in undertaking manned exploration initiatives.

 

More about on news:

  • A human rated GSLV Mk-lll will be used to carry the orbital module which will have necessary provisions for sustaining a 3-member crew for the duration of the mission.
  • The necessary infrastructure for crew training, realization of flight systems and ground infrastructure will be established to support the Gaganyaan Programme.
  • ISRO will collaborate extensively with National agencies, laboratories, academia and industry to accomplish the Gaganyaan Programme objectives.

 

Expenditure:

  • The total fund requirement for the Gaganyaan Programme is within Rs.10,000 crore and includes cost of technology development, flight hardware realization and essential infrastructure elements.
  • Two unmanned flights and one manned flight will be undertaken as part of Gaganyaan Programme.

 

Benefits:

  • Gaganyaan Programme will establish a broader framework for collaboration between ISRO, academia, industry, national agencies and other scientific organizations.
  • This will allow pooling in of diverse technological and industrial capabilities and enable broader participation in research opportunities and technology development benefitting large number of students and researchers.
  • The flight system realization will be through Industry.
  • It is expected to generate employment and train human resources in advanced technologies.
  • It will inspire large number of young students to take up science and technology careers for national development.
  • Gaganyaan Programme is a national effort and will involve the participation of the Industry, Academia and National Agencies spread across the length and breadth of the country.

 

Implementation Strategy and Targets:

  • Gaganyaan Programme will be a national effort in collaboration with Industry, Academia and other scientific agencies and laboratories as stake holders along with ISRO.
  • ISRO will be responsible for realizing the flight hardware through Industry. National agencies, laboratories and Academia will participate in crew training, human life science technology development initiatives as well as design reviews.
  • First human space flight demonstration is targeted to be completed within 40 months from the date of sanction.
  • Prior to this, two unmanned flights in full complement will be carried out to gain confidence on the technology and mission management aspects.

 

Impact:

  • The programme is expected to spur research and development within the country in niche science and technology domains.
  • Huge potential for technology spinoffs in areas such as medicine, agriculture, industrial safety, pollution, waste management, water and food resource management etc.
  • Human spaceflight programme will provide a unique micro-gravity platform in space for conducting experiments and test bed for future technologies.
  • The programme is expected to give impetus to economic activities within the country in terms of employment generation, human resource development and enhanced industrial capabilities.
  • Human Spaceflight capability will enable India to participate as a collaborating partner in future global space exploration initiatives with long term national benefits.

 

Sample Question:

Consider the following statements with respect to Gaganyaan Mission

  1. It will be India’s first manned space mission.
  2. Under it, India is planning to send three humans (Gaganyatris) into space in low earth orbit (LEO) by 2022.
  3. India will be third nation in the world to launch a human spaceflight mission.

Choose the correct answer from the above

a). 1 only

b). 1 and 3 only

c). 1 and 2 only

d). All of the above

Answer: c) 1 and 2 only

 


 

Topic: Govt approves submission of India’s second Biennial Update Report

 

Topic in Syllabus: International Institutions

India's second Biennial Update Report

Why in news?

The Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has approved Submission of India’s second Biennial Update Report (BUR) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change towards fulfilment of the reporting obligation under the Convention.

 

More about on news:

  • India emitted around 2.607 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent of Green House Gases (GHGs) in 2014, with the energy sector contributing over 70 per cent of the total, according to a report approved by the Union Cabinet for submission to the UN body.
  • According to an earlier official statement, India had submitted its first BUR in 2016.
  • As per the first report, the country had emitted 2,136.84 million tonnes of CO2 equivalent greenhouse gases in 2010. It said energy sector was the prime contributor to emissions and with 71 per cent of total emissions.
  • According to the second BUR, “In 2014, a total of 26,07,488 Gigagram (Gg) CC-2 equivalent (around 2.607 billion tonnes of CC-2 equivalent) of GHGs were emitted from all activities (excluding LULUCF) in India. The net national GHG emissions after including LULUCF were 23,06,295 Gg COa equivalent (around 2.306 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent).”
  • The scope of the BUR is to provide an update to India’s first BUR to the UNFCCC.

 

Key highlights:

  • The scope of BUR is to provide an update to India’s first BUR to UNFCCC.
  • The BUR contains five major components :
  1. National Circumstances;
  2. National Greenhouse Gas Inventory;
  3. Mitigation Actions;
  4. Finance, Technology and Capacity Building Needs and Support Received and
  5. Domestic Monitoring, Reporting and Verification (MRV) arrangements.
  • BUR has been prepared based on a range of studies conducted at the national level.
  • The BUR has undergone multitier review process, through peer review, review by Technical Advisory Committee of Experts chaired by Additional Secretary (Climate Change) and by National Steering Committee chaired by Secretary (EF&CC).
  • The National Steering Committee is an inter-ministerial body comprising NITI Aayog along with various ministries.
  • The BUR has been finalized after addressing all the relevant comments and modifications as per the multi-tier review process.
  • In 2014, a total of 26,07,488 Gigagram (Gg) CC-2 equivalent* (around 2.607 billion tonnes of CC-2 equivalent) of GHGs were emitted from all activities (excluding LULUCF) in India.
  • The net national GHG emissions after including LULUCF were 23,06,295 Gg COa equivalent (around 2.306 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent).
  • Out of the total emissions, energy sector accounted for 73%, IPPU 8%, agriculture 16% and waste sector 3%. About 12% of emissions were offset by the carbon sink action of forestland, cropland and settlements.

 

A summary of India’s national GHG inventory of 2014 is provided in the table below:

Category

 

CO2 equivalent (Gg)

 

Energy

 

19,09,765.74

 

Industrial Process and Product Use

 

2,02,277.69

 

Agriculture

 

4,17,217.54

 

Waste

 

78,227.15

 

Land Use, Land Use Change and Forestry (LULUCF)**

 

-3,01,192.69

 

TOTAL without LULUCF

 

26,07,488.12

 

TOTAL with LULUCF

 

23,06,295.43

 

Background:

  • India is a Party to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
  • The Convention, in accordance with its Article 4.1 and 12.1, enjoins upon all Parties, both developed country Parties and developing country Parties to furnish information, in the form of a National Communication regarding implementation of the Convention.
  • Conference of Parties to the UNFCCC in its sixteenth session decided vide paragraph 60 (c) of decision 1 that developing countries, consistent with their capabilities and the level of support provided for reporting, should also submit biennial update reports containing updates of national greenhouse gas inventories and information on mitigation actions, needs and support received.
  • Decision 2 of COP17, in paragraph 41 (f) states that Biennial Update Reports shall be submitted every two years.

 

Major impact:

Submission of India’s Second BUR will fulfil the obligation of India to furnish information regarding implementation of the Convention, being a Party.

 

Sample Question:

Which of the followings are considered as major components of India’s second Biennial Update Report (BUR)?

  1. National Circumstances
  2. National Greenhouse Gas Inventory
  3. Mitigation Actions
  4. Finance, Technology and Capacity Building Needs and Support Received
  5. Domestic Monitoring, Reporting and Verification (MRV) arrangements.

Choose the correct answer from the above

a). 1, 2 and 4 only

b). 3, 4 and 5 only

c). 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 

d). All of the above

Answer: d) all of the above

 


 

Topic: Another olive ridley nesting site soon

 

Topic in Syllabus: Ecology & Environment

Olive ridley nesting site

Why in news?

The Odisha forest department is all set to add another olive ridley mass nesting site to its wildlife map.

 

More about on news:

  • It has started preparing the beach at the Bahuda river mouth in Ganjam district to lure the endangered turtles to come over for mass nesting next year.
  • Around 3-km stretch of the beach from Sunapur to Anantpur at Bahuda rookery is being developed as a possible olive ridley mass nesting site.
  • The Bahuda rookery is located around 20 km to the south of Rushikulya rookery coast, a major mass nesting site of olive ridleys on the Indian coastline.
  • Berhampur Divisional Forest Officer Ashis Behera said the Bahuda rookery coast has been cleaned up once already and it will be thoroughly cleaned up again before the start of the mass nesting season in February.
  • “The forest department has decided to fence off around 2-km stretch of the beach near Bahuda river mouth to protect the turtles during the nesting season,” the DFO said.

 

Encouraging signs:

  • This year, a few hundred olive ridleys had nested at Bahuda river mouth in February.
  • This encouraged the forest department to develop it as a second mass nesting site for the turtles on the Ganjam coast.
  • At present, mating olive ridleys are being sighted near the Bahuda rookery.
  • It is being hoped that the turtles will find the beach conducive and their mass nesting number at Bahuda will increase in 2019.
  • Marine fishermen in the area have been requested to refrain from using gill nets during fishing as that can kill the turtles.
  • Fishermen near Rushikulya rookery do not use such nets. With the support of local residents, efforts are being made to reduce polythene pollution caused by tourists and picnickers at Bahuda river mouth to keep the sand clean for mass nesting.

 

Oliver Ridleys:

  • The olive ridley sea turtle (Lepidochelys olivacea), also known as the Pacific ridley sea turtle, is a medium-sized species of sea turtle found in warm and tropical waters, primarily in the Pacific and Indian Oceans
  • They can also be found in warm waters of Atlantic Ocean.
  • Olive ridley turtles are best known for their behavior of synchronized nesting in mass numbers, termed arribadas.
  • Interestingly, females return to the very same beach from where they first hatched, to lay their eggs.
  • They lay their eggs in conical nests about one and a half feet deep which they laboriously dig with their hind flippers.
  • In the Indian Ocean, the majority of olive ridleys nest in two or three large groups near Gahirmatha in Odisha.
  • The coast of Odisha in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley, followed by the coasts of Mexico and Costa Rica.
  • In 1991, over 600,000 turtles nested along the coast of Odisha in one week. Nesting occurs elsewhere along the Coromandel Coast and Sri Lanka, but in scattered locations.
  • However, olive ridleys are considered a rarity in most areas of the Indian Ocean.
  • The Olive Ridley sea turtle has been listed on Schedule – I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

 

Conservation status:

  • Vulnerable according to the (IUCN) and is listed in Appendix I of CITES.
  • Protection under The Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and the Inter-American Convention for the Protection and Conservation of Sea Turtles

 

Threats:

  • Incidental take, particularly in shrimp trawl nets and near shore gill nets, direct harvest of eggs and adults for their meat and skin, Marine pollution (including oil spills) and debris.
  • To reduce accidental killing in India, the Orissa government has made it mandatory for trawls to use Turtle Excluder Devices (TEDs), a net specially designed with an exit cover which allows the turtles to escape while retaining the catch.
  • However, this has been strongly opposed by the fishing communities as they believe TEDs result in loss of considerable amount of the catch along with the turtle.
  • WWF-India, along with its partners, disproved this theory by conducting a study to measure the loss of catch through TEDs, revealing the loss to be a very small percentage of the total catch.
  • This result, along with regular meetings with the fishing communities, is slowly helping to change their mindset and encourage use of TEDs, thereby aiding the conservation of Olive ridley turtles.

 

Sample Question:

Which of the followings are correct with respect to Olive Ridley

  1. The Olive Ridley sea turtle has been listed on Schedule – II of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  2. The coast of Odisha in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley, followed by the coasts of Mexico and Costa Rica.
  3. It is Vulnerable according to the (IUCN).

Choose the correct answer from the above

a). 1 and 2 only

b). 2 only

c). 2 and 3 only

d). All of the above

Answer: d) all of the above

 


 

Topic: Government of India invites nominations for Disaster Management Awards

 

Topic in Syllabus: Indian Polity

Disaster Management Awards

Why in news?

The Government of India invites nominations for the “Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar” for excellence in the field of disaster management.

 

More about on news:

  • The winners will be declared on 23rd January 2019, on the occasion of the birth anniversary of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.
  • The last date for applying is 7th January 2019
  • Three eligible institutions and individuals will be given the ‘Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskaar’ every year with cash rewards ranging from Rs 5 lakh to Rs 51 lakh, a statement issued by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) said.
  • If the awardee is an institution, it will be given a certificate and a cash prize of Rs 51 lakh and the prize money will be utilised for disaster management-related activities only. If the awardee is an individual, the person shall receive a certificate and a cash prize of Rs 5 lakh, it said.
  • An application by an institution does not debar any individual from that institution to apply for the award in his individual capacity.

 

More about Award:

  • There will be up to three awards. Both institutions and individuals are eligible for these awards.
  • If the awardee is an institution, it shall receive a certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 51 lakhs.
  • The Institution shall utilize this cash prize for Disaster Management related activities only.
  • If the awardee is an individual, winner shall receive a certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 5.00 lakhs.
  • An application by an institution does not debar any individual from that institution to apply for the award in his individual capacity.

Main highlights

 

Eligibility

  • Only Indian nationals and Indian institutions can apply for the award.
  • For institutional awards, voluntary organizations, corporate entities, academic/research institutions, response/ uniformed forces or any other institution may apply for the award.

 

Criteria for Award

The applicant must have worked in the area of Disaster Management like Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Rescue, Response, Relief, Rehabilitation, Research, Innovation or Early Warning related work in India.

The application must be accompanied by details of the work done in disaster management and must highlight achievements in any one or more of the following areas:

  • Saving human lives.
  • Reduction in impact of disasters on lives, livestock, livelihoods, property, society, economy, or environment.
  • Mobilisation and provision of resources for effective response during disasters
  • Immediate relief work in disaster hit areas and communities
  • Effective and innovative use of technology in any field of disaster management.
  • Disaster mitigation initiatives in hazard prone areas
  • Capacity building of communities for response and risk reduction.
  • Early warning and dissemination of disaster risk information to people on real time basis.
  • Scientific/ technical research and innovation in any field of disaster management.
  • Post-disaster recovery and rehabilitation.
  • Continued functioning of critical infrastructure and basic services during disasters.
  • Creating awareness among the masses for preparedness and risk reduction.
  • Any other area related to Disaster Risk Management.

 

Categories and Prizes

  • There will be up to three awards. Both institutions and individuals are eligible for these awards.
  • An institution and individual winner will receive a certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 51 lakhs and Rs. 5 lakhs respectively.

 

Sample Question:

Consider the following statements with respect to “Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar”.

  1. The Government of India invites nominations for the “Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar” for excellence in the field of disaster management.
  2. Only Indian nationals and Indian institutions can apply for the award.
  3. Both institutions and individuals are eligible for these awards.

Choose the correct answer from the above

a). 1 only

b). 1 and 3 only

c). 2 only

d). All of the above

Answer: d) all of the above

 


 

Topic: NITI Aayog Releases Second Delta Ranking of the Aspirational Districts

 

Topic in Syllabus: Indian Economy

Second Delta Ranking of the Aspirational Districts

Why in news?

The NITI Aayog today released the Second Delta ranking for the Aspirational Districts which measures the incremental progress made by them between June 1, 2018 and October 31, 2018.

 

More about on news:

  • The ranking factors in validated data from Household Surveys conducted by NITI Aayog’s knowledge partners, namely, TATA Trusts and Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation (IDInsight).
  • The Surveys were carried out in all Aspirational Districts during the month of June 2018 covering more than 1,00,000 households.
  • These surveys were used to validate critical data-points and provide inputs for nine further data-points for which district-level data is not readily available at regular intervals.
  • The delta ranking is computed in a transparent manner for combined improvements made during June and October 2018.
  • Releasing the Second Delta Ranking, Shri Amitabh Kant, CEO, NITIAayog said, “We have constantly endeavoured to ensure transparent, real-time measurement of qualitative development in Aspirational Districts through the use of third-party validated data.
  • This will strengthen the spirit of competitive and cooperative federalism on the foundations of evidence-based policy making.”
  • The first Delta ranking for the Aspirational Districts was released in June 2018.
  • It ranked the Aspirational Districts on improved performance across five developmental areas of Health and Nutrition, Education, Agriculture and Water Resources, Financial Inclusion and Skill Development, and Basic Infrastructure, over the months of April and May 2018, on the basis of self-reported data.

 

About ‘Transformation of Aspirational Districts’ programme:

  • Launched by the Prime Minister in January this year, the ‘Transformation of Aspirational Districts’ programme aims to quickly and effectively transform some of the most underdeveloped districts of the country.
  • The broad contours of the programme are Convergence (of Central & State Schemes), Collaboration (of Central, State level ‘Prabhari’ Officers & District Collectors), and Competition among districts driven by a Mass Movement or a Jan Andolan.
  • With States as the main drivers, this program will focus on the strength of each district, identify low-hanging fruits for immediate improvement, measure progress, and rank districts.
  • The Government is committed to raising the living standards of its citizens and ensuring inclusive growth for all – SabkaSaath, SabkaVikas.
  • To enable optimum utilization of their potential, this program focuses closely on improving people’s ability to participate fully in the burgeoning economy.
  • Health & Nutrition, Education, Agriculture & Water Resources, Financial Inclusion & Skill Development, and Basic Infrastructure are this programme’s core areas of focus.
  • After several rounds of consultations with various stakeholders, 49 key performance indicators have been chosen to measure progress of the districts.
  • Districts are prodded and encouraged to first catch-up with the best district within their state, and subsequently aspire to become one of the best in the country, by competing with, and learning from others in the spirit of competitive & cooperative federalism.

Aspirational districts

 

Sample Question:

Which of the followings are correct with respect to Aspirational districts

  1. The Union Government had selected 115 backward (aspirational) districts for rapid transformation by 2022 in line with Government’s vision to create ‘New India’
  2. It aims to enable optimum utilization of their potential, this program focuses closely on improving people’s ability to participate fully in the burgeoning economy.
  3. For this government will leverage Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs), aided by technology to bring radical transformation of these aspirational districts.

Choose the correct answer from the below

a). 1 only

b). 1 and 2 only

c). 1 and 3 only

d). All of the above

Answer: d) all of the above